ECT261 Final Examination Practice

Instructions: There are 50 questions on this test. It is written in a style very similar to the REAL final exam. Choose the best answer from among those given. Click the GRADE button on the bottom of the form when you want the exam graded.

Note: You can practice this test as many times as you desire; the system will cook you up a fresh batch of questions each time you access this page.

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1. Which of these describes the process of modulation?

a) Recovering information from a carrier wave
b) Placing information onto a carrier wave
c) Controlling the frequency of a carrier wave
d) None of the above

2. What are the steps of troubleshooting in correct order?

a) Visual inspection, Check power supply, Check inputs & outputs
b) Check power supply, Visual inspection, Check inputs & outputs
c) Visual inspection, Check inputs & outputs, Check power supply
d) None of the above

3. In troubleshooting a stage in an electronic device, where is the best place to check the power supply?

a) At the output terminal of the voltage regulator IC
b) Directly at the terminals of the device using the power
c) At the power supply buss line
d) None of the above

4. The horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer is labeled in what units?

a) Time - Seconds
b) Resistance - Ohms
c) Frequency - Hz
d) None of the above

5. The signal shown above is fed into a bandpass filter with a center frequency of 2 KHz. What will the output of the bandpass filter look like on an oscilloscope?

a) A 1 KHz square wave
b) A 1 KHz sine wave
c) A 2 KHz triangle wave
d) None of the above

6. What is the relationship of the 2 KHz frequency component to the 1 KHz component in the figure above?

a) The 2 KHz signal is twice the amplitude of the 1 KHz signal
b) The 2 KHz is a distorted form of the 1 KHz signal
c) The 2 KHz signal is the 2nd harmonic of the 1 KHz signal
d) None of the above

7. Which of these measures would decrease shot noise?

a) Decrease the forward DC bias current
b) Increase the junction voltage drop
c) Increase the forward DC bias current
d) None of the above

8. Which of these could be classified as an internal noise source?

a) Atmospheric noise
b) Cosmic noise
c) Johnson noise
d) None of the above

9. What signal to noise ratio, in dB, will result if a system has 1 mV of noise and 1000 mV of signal voltage?

a) 10 dB
b) 20 dB
c) 60 dB
d) None of the above

10. What is the information frequency in the AM signal pictured above?

a) 1 KHz
b) 2 KHz
c) 4 KHz
d) 5 KHz

11. What bandwidth will be required to transmit a 2 KHz sine-wave tone on an AM carrier wave if the carrier frequency is 118 MHz?

a) 10 KHz
b) 4 KHz
c) 8 KHz
d) None of these

12. If the load resistance RL is 50 Ohms, what is the total power of the AM signal above?

a) 200 Watts
b) 204 Watts
c) 250 Watts
d) None of the above

13. What bandwidth will be required to transmit a 5 KHz sine-wave tone on an AM carrier wave if the carrier frequency is 710 KHz?

a) 10 KHz
b) 5 KHz
c) 1 KHz
d) None of the above

14. An AM signal was measured on an oscilloscope. The readings were Vmax=300 V, and Vmin = 150V. What is the percent modulation?

a) 33.3 %
b) 50 %
c) 75 %
d) None of the above

15. What is meant by the term "dead-keyed?"

a) The unmodulated condition; 0% modulation
b) 50% modulated
c) 100% modulated; maximum output power
d) None of the above

16. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier?

a) To provide a large voltage gain
b) To isolate the oscillator from the next stage
c) To reduce distortion of the carrier sine wave
d) None of the above

17. Where would one expect to find an RF bypass capacitor connected within a radio transmitter?

a) Between the final PA stage and the antenna
b) Between the oscillator and buffer amplifier
c) Between a power supply line and ground
d) None of the above

18. Why would a class C amplifier be an excellent choice for use as a modulator in a radio transmitter?

a) The class C amplifier generates very low levels of distortion
b) The class C amplifier can operate on very low supply voltages
c) The class C amplifier is very nonlinear -- a requirement for modulation
d) None of the above

19. The oscillator in a certain transmitter produces +6 dBm of output. The signal is subsequently amplified in the following stages:

Buffer: +10 dB
Modulator: +6 dB
Driver: +10 dB
Final: +14 dB
Antenna Coupler: -1 dB
What is the final output power of this transmitter in Watts?

a) 8 Watts
b) 32 Watts
c) 400 mW
d) None of these

20. The oscillator in a certain transmitter produces 1 mW of output. The signal is subsequently amplified in the following stages:

Buffer: +10 dB
Modulator: +6 dB
Driver: +10 dB
Final: +13 dB

What is the final output power of this transmitter in Watts?

a) 8 Watts
b) 4 Watts
c) 400 mW
d) None of these

21. What type of oscillator is pictured above?

a) Colpitts
b) Hartley
c) Armstrong
d) Pierce
e) None of the above

22. What is the operating frequency of the oscillator pictured above?

a) 599.412 KHz
b) 847.697 KHz
c) 455.000 KHz
d) None of the above

23. In order for an oscillator to start, the loop gain must be:

a) Greater than 1
b) Greater than or equal to 1
c) Less than 1
d) None of the above

24. Another name for the series-resonant frequency of a crystal is the:

a) Pole
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

25. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the parallel-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

26. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. At series-resonance, what is the approximate terminal impedance of the unit?

a) 30 + j125 Ohms
b) 30 - j150 Ohms
c) 150 Ohms (Equal to Rs)
d) Infinity (Open Circuit)

27. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the series-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

28. Another name for the parallel-resonant frequency of a crystal is the:

a) Pole
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

29. What is the function of the preselector in a superhet receiver?

a) Boosts the gain of the IF amplifier
b) Used to produce the AGC control signal
c) Eliminates the image frequency
d) None of these

30. Which of the following specifies the most sensitive receiver? All the units have the same bandwidth. Hint: Convert all into absolute power units.

a) 1 uV into 75 Ohms for better than 10 dB S/N ratio
b) 0.5 uV into 50 Ohms for better than 10 dB S/N ratio
c) -120 dBm for better than 10 dB S/N ratio
d) -110 dBm for better than 10 dB S/N ratio

31. A superhet receiver is using high-side injection. The incoming RF signal has a carrier frequency of 560 KHz; the IF frequency is 455 KHz. What is the image frequency?

a) 1470 KHz
b) 1015 KHz
c) 1120 KHz
d) 1165 KHz
e) None of these

32. What is the advantage of having a constant-frequency amplifier (the IF amplifier) in a superheterodyne receiver?

a) The gain can be held constant
b) The noise is minimized
c) The bandwidth will be constant
d) None of these

33. A certain superhet receiver has a preselector bandwidth that averages 100 KHz, and an IF bandwidth of 10 KHz. What will the receiver's total bandwidth be?

a) 10 KHz
b) 110 KHz
c) 210 KHz
d) 150 KHz
e) None of these

34. A mixer has two frequencies being applied, 700 KHz and 1000 KHz. Which of these gives the ideal output frequencies?

a) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz
b) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz
c) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz, 300 KHz
d) None of these

35. How can a technician determine that a PLL is in lock?

a) Check that Vcontrol = Vcc/2
b) Check that Fvco = Fref
c) Check that Fvco = Fref / 2
d) None of the above

36. Which part of a PLL converts voltage changes into frequency changes?

a) Phase Detector
b) Low Pass Filter
c) VCO
d) None of the above

37. Given that N=2442, R=10240, and F1 = 10.240 MHz, what will the output frequency Fout of the PLL synthesizer above be?

a) 1.024 MHz
b) 20.480 MHz
c) 8.192 MHz
d) 2.442 MHz

38. Given that N=1593, R=1024, and F1 = 10.240 MHz, what will the output frequency Fout of the PLL synthesizer above be?

a) 10.240 MHz
b) 4.9152 MHz
c) 15.930 MHz
d) None of the above

39. An FM transmitter converts information voltage into...?

a) Output amplitude changes
b) Output phase changes
c) Output frequency changes
d) None of the above

40. A certain FM transmitter is operating on 29.600 MHz; the unmodulated carrier voltage Vc = 50 V. How much bandwidth will this transmitter occupy if Fm = 1 KHz and the deviation is 2 KHz? (Use a Bessel table, not Carson's rule).

a) 2 KHz
b) 8 KHz
c) 16 KHz
d) 32 KHz
e) None of the above

41. How many significant PAIRS of sidebands will be produced by an FM transmitter that is producing 2 KHz of deviation with a 1 KHz deviation rate (information frequency)?

a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

42. A certain FM transmitter operates on 95.3 MHz. The maximum frequency from the transmitter is 95.325 MHz, and the minimum frequency is 95.275 MHz. What is the percentage of modulation?

a) 67%
b) 100%
c) 25%
d) 33%

43. If the frequency at TP "A" in the figure above is 95.300 MHz, what is the MOST LIKELY frequency at TP "D"?

a) 95.300 MHz
b) 93.300 MHz
c) 91.900 MHz
d) None of the above

44. A 5 MHz crystal oscillator is being driven so that it has 1000 Hz of deviation. This signal is fed into an X3 frequency multiplier. What is the resultant output frequency and deviation?

a) Fout=3 MHz, Deviation=2 KHz
b) Fout=5 MHz, Deviation=3 KHz
c) Fout=15 MHz, Deviation=1 KHz
d) None of the above

45. Why is it possible to amplify FM signals in a class C amplifier?

a) The maximum power is no more than twice the unmodulated power
b) The power in an FM signal is constant
c) The bandwidth of FM signals quite small, less than 10 KHz
d) None of the above

46. What type of FM transmitter is pictured above?

a) Armstrong WBFM
b) PLL
c) Crosby Frequency-Locked-Loop
d) None of the above

47. Where is the demodulated signal taken out of a PLL FM demodulator?

a) At the reference oscillator
b) At the VCO output
c) At the loop filter output
d) None of these

48. What stage in an FM receiver rejects amplitude disturbances?

a) Detector
b) Limiter
c) Mixer
d) Preselector

49. What is the name of the amplifier that operates at a constant frequency in an FM superheterodyne receiver?

a) The audio amplifier
b) The RF amplifier
c) The IF amplifier
d) None of these

50. Why is a 10.7 MHz (rather than 455 KHz) IF used in an FM broadcast receiver?

a) More gain is required to receive FM signals
b) Using a higher frequency IF reduces noise
c) FM broadcasts use much more bandwidth than AM broadcasts
d) None of the above


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