ECT261 Final Examination Practice

Instructions: There are 50 questions on this test. It is written in a style very similar to the REAL final exam. Choose the best answer from among those given. Click the GRADE button on the bottom of the form when you want the exam graded.

Note: You can practice this test as many times as you desire; the system will cook you up a fresh batch of questions each time you access this page.

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1. A certain transmitter's antenna is 5/8 wavelength long and measures 49.213 inches. What is the actual operating frequency of this transmitter? (1 inch = 2.54 cm).

a) 25 MHz
b) 50 MHz
c) 75 MHz
d) 150 MHz
e) None of the above

2. Which of these describes demodulation?

a) Recovering information from a carrier wave
b) Placing information onto a carrier wave
c) Controlling the frequency of a carrier wave
d) None of the above

3. Why can't audio frequencies be directly transmitted through an antenna system?

a) The antenna required would be too long
b) Too much power would be required
c) The receiver would distort the information waveform
d) None of the above

4. What is the only "pure" waveform containing no harmonic energies?

a) Triangle wave
b) Sine wave
c) Square wave
d) None of the above

5. The signal shown above is fed into a bandpass filter with a center frequency of 1 KHz. What will the output of the bandpass filter look like on an oscilloscope?

a) A 1 KHz square wave
b) A 1 KHz sine wave
c) A 2 KHz triangle wave
d) None of the above

6. What laboratory instrument is used to view signals in the frequency domain?

a) Oscilloscope
b) Function generator
c) Spectrum analyzer
d) None of the above

7. What noise voltage will be generated across a 100K resistor at room temperature (24 degrees Celsius) if the circuit's bandwidth is 1 MHz? (k=1.38 x 10-23 J/K)

a) 40.5 uV
b) 0.5 uV
c) 20 uV
d) None of the above

8. Noise can best be defined as:

a) Any undesired signal within a system
b) Pulses appearing at the output of a system
c) Distortion at the output of a system
d) None of the above

9. Which of these could be classified as an internal noise source?

a) Atmospheric noise
b) Cosmic noise
c) Johnson noise
d) None of the above

10. What is the percentage of modulation for the AM signal above?

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70.7%
d) None of the above

11. New frequencies that are generated during the process of modulation are known as:

a) Harmonics
b) Fundamentals
c) Sidebands
d) None of the above

12. What is the percentage of modulation of the AM signal pictured above?

a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 30%
d) None of the above

13. What bandwidth will be required to transmit a 2 KHz sine-wave tone on an AM carrier wave if the carrier frequency is 118 MHz?

a) 10 KHz
b) 4 KHz
c) 8 KHz
d) None of these

14. What is the frequency of the upper sideband for an AM transmitter with a carrier frequency of 710 KHz and an information frequency of 5 KHz?

a) 710 KHz
b) 711 KHz
c) 712 KHz
d) None of the above

15. What is the function of an RF bypass capacitor?

a) To couple signal from one stage to the next
b) To couple RF energy into the antenna
c) To force RF energy to go to ground
d) None of the above

16. A certain high-level transmitter produces 10 Watts of carrier power. How much power must the audio amplifier produce to 100% modulate this transmitter?

a) 2 Watts
b) 4 Watts
c) 8 Watts
d) 5 Watts
e) None of the above

17. Why would the power supply to an oscillator stage be regulated?

a) To provide maximum power output from the oscillator
b) To prevent the oscillator from producing a distorted sine wave
c) To prevent the oscillator from being "pulled" off frequency
d) None of the above

18. Where does the modulation take place at in a high-level transmitter?

a) At the oscillator
b) At the final power amplifier
c) At the buffer amplifier
d) Before the final power amplifier

19. What is meant by the term "dead-keyed?"

a) The unmodulated condition; 0% modulation
b) 50% modulated
c) 100% modulated; maximum output power
d) None of the above

20. To isolate a transmitter's carrier oscillator from undesired load changes, what stage is often used?

a) A buffer amplifier
b) A class C amplifier
c) A power amplifier
d) None of the above

21. What type of oscillator is pictured above?

a) Colpitts
b) Hartley
c) Armstrong
d) Pierce
e) None of the above

22. What type of oscillator is pictured above?

a) Colpitts
b) Hartley
c) Armstrong
d) Pierce
e) None of the above

23. A certain oscillator has an amplifier with a phase shift of 45 degrees. According to the Barkhausen criteria for oscillation, what phase shift in the FEEDBACK network would be necessary to cause oscillation?

a) 90 Degrees
b) -45 Degrees
c) 315 Degrees
d) (b) or (c)
e) None of the above

24. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the series-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

25. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the parallel-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

26. Another name for the series-resonant frequency of a crystal is the:

a) Pole
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

27. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. At parallel-resonance, what is the approximate terminal impedance of the unit?

a) 30 + j125 Ohms
b) 30 - j150 Ohms
c) 150 Ohms (Equal to Rs)
d) Infinity (Open Circuit)

28. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. At series-resonance, what is the approximate terminal impedance of the unit?

a) 30 + j125 Ohms
b) 30 - j150 Ohms
c) 150 Ohms (Equal to Rs)
d) Infinity (Open Circuit)

29. The ability of the preselector and local oscillator stages to keep a constant difference of F(if) in a superhet receiver is referred to as:

a) AGC
b) Detection
c) Alignment
d) Tracking

30. What is the advantage of having a constant-frequency amplifier (the IF amplifier) in a superheterodyne receiver?

a) The gain can be held constant
b) The noise is minimized
c) The bandwidth will be constant
d) None of these

31. A mixer has two frequencies being applied, 700 KHz and 1000 KHz. Which of these gives the ideal output frequencies?

a) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz
b) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz
c) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz, 300 KHz
d) None of these

32. Why can't TRF receivers be constructed for high-frequency (above 1-2 MHz) use?

a) Insufficent "Q" is available from discrete LC components at these frequencies
b) Transistors and ICs have insufficient gain at these frequencies
c) Detector circuits produce excessive distortion at these frequencies
d) None of the above

33. A superhet receiver is using high-side injection. The incoming RF signal has a carrier frequency of 560 KHz; the IF frequency is 455 KHz. What is the image frequency?

a) 1470 KHz
b) 1015 KHz
c) 1120 KHz
d) 1165 KHz
e) None of these

34. In a superhet receiver, the difference between the preselector and local oscillator frequencies should always be:

a) The IF frequency
b) The carrier frequency
c) One-half the local oscillator frequency
d) None of these

35. How can a technician determine that a PLL is in lock?

a) Check that Vcontrol = Vcc/2
b) Check that Fvco = Fref
c) Check that Fvco = Fref / 2
d) None of the above

36. When no input signal is being applied to a PLL, what state will it be in?

a) Lock
b) Capture
c) Free-Run
d) None of the above

37. In the PLL pictured above, the following measurements were made:

F1 = 10.000 MHz
"A" = 0 KHz (Steady +100 mV DC signal)
"B" = 55 KHz (5 Vpp square wave)
VCO Control Voltage = 0.3 V (Steady DC); Vcc = 8.0 V
"D" = 55.055 MHz (Unstable; this is an average).

It is known that R = 100 and N = 1001 from the service documentation. What is the most likely fault in the loop?

a) The N divider is defective (Not triggering correctly on VCO signal)
b) The R divider is defective (Not producing correct frequency at TP "A")
c) The VCO is defective (Not oscillating)
d) The phase detector is defective (Not comparing "A" and "B")
e) The loop is operating correctly

38. Given that N=1593, R=1024, and F1 = 10.240 MHz, what will the output frequency Fout of the PLL synthesizer above be?

a) 10.240 MHz
b) 4.9152 MHz
c) 15.930 MHz
d) None of the above

39. What is the purpose of guard bands?

a) To reduce distortion on received signals
b) To limit the transmitting distance to line of sight
c) To prevent adjacent channel interference
d) None of the above

40. What is the total bandwidth allocated for an FM broadcast station in the USA (Including guard bands)?

a) 200 KHz
b) 150 KHz
c) 75 KHz
d) None of the above

41. What is the percentage modulation of an FM broadcast transmitter producing 50 KHz deviation?

a) 67%
b) 50%
c) 25%
d) None of the above

42. A certain FM transmitter operates on 95.3 MHz. The maximum frequency from the transmitter is 95.325 MHz, and the minimum frequency is 95.275 MHz. What is the percentage of modulation?

a) 67%
b) 100%
c) 25%
d) 33%

43. If the frequency at TP "A" in the figure above is 95.300 MHz, what is the MOST LIKELY frequency at TP "D"?

a) 95.300 MHz
b) 93.300 MHz
c) 91.900 MHz
d) None of the above

44. Which class of amplifier is generally preferred for power amplification in FM transmitters?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) None of the above

45. A 5 MHz crystal oscillator is being driven so that it has 1000 Hz of deviation. This signal is fed into an X3 frequency multiplier. What is the resultant output frequency and deviation?

a) Fout=3 MHz, Deviation=2 KHz
b) Fout=5 MHz, Deviation=3 KHz
c) Fout=15 MHz, Deviation=1 KHz
d) None of the above

46. What type of FM transmitter is pictured above?

a) Armstrong WBFM
b) PLL
c) Crosby Frequency-Locked-Loop
d) None of the above

47. Why is a 10.7 MHz (rather than 455 KHz) IF used in an FM broadcast receiver?

a) More gain is required to receive FM signals
b) Using a higher frequency IF reduces noise
c) FM broadcasts use much more bandwidth than AM broadcasts
d) None of the above

48. What is the purpose of the AFC system in an FM receiver?

a) Corrects for local oscillator frequency drift
b) Keeps the IF amplifier gains at maximum
c) Corrects the frequency of the IF amplifier tuned circuits
d) None of the above

49. Which of these FM detectors rely on a closed loop that "follows" the instantaneous frequency changes of the incoming carrier signal?

a) Quadrature
b) Foster-Seeley
c) Ratio
d) PLL
e) None of these

50. Why is FM reception generally free from interference in the form of static?

a) FM Receivers are not sensitive to amplitude variations
b) FM receivers have a very high IF frequency
c) FM receivers use class C amplifiers to reject noise
d) None of the above


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