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1. In troubleshooting a stage in an electronic device, where is the best place to check the power supply?

a) At the output terminal of the voltage regulator IC
b) Directly at the terminals of the device using the power
c) At the power supply buss line
d) None of the above

2. Which of these describes demodulation?

a) Recovering information from a carrier wave
b) Placing information onto a carrier wave
c) Controlling the frequency of a carrier wave
d) None of the above

3. What are the steps of troubleshooting in correct order?

a) Visual inspection, Check power supply, Check inputs & outputs
b) Check power supply, Visual inspection, Check inputs & outputs
c) Visual inspection, Check inputs & outputs, Check power supply
d) None of the above

4. The signal shown above is fed into a bandpass filter with a center frequency of 2 KHz. What will the output of the bandpass filter look like on an oscilloscope?

a) A 1 KHz square wave
b) A 1 KHz sine wave
c) A 2 KHz triangle wave
d) None of the above

5. What is the only "pure" waveform containing no harmonic energies?

a) Triangle wave
b) Sine wave
c) Square wave
d) None of the above

6. What frequency is two octaves above 1 KHz?

a) 2 KHz
b) 3 KHz
c) 5 KHz
d) None of the above

7. Which of these could be classified as an internal noise source?

a) Atmospheric noise
b) Cosmic noise
c) Johnson noise
d) None of the above

8. What noise voltage will be generated across a 47K resistor at room temperature (24 degrees Celsius) if the circuit's bandwidth is 500 KHz? (k=1.38 x 10-23 J/K)

a) 40.5 uV
b) 19.6 uV
c) 20 uV
d) None of the above

9. What type of noise is produced by devices with forward-biased PN junctions?

a) Cosmic noise
b) Johnson noise
c) Thermal noise
d) None of the above

10. If the load resistance RL is 50 Ohms, what is the total power of the AM signal above?

a) 200 Watts
b) 204 Watts
c) 250 Watts
d) None of the above

11. Which of these is a consequence of overmodulating an AM transmitter?

a) Distortion of the information
b) Splatter (Excessive bandwidth)
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

12. What bandwidth will be required to transmit a 2 KHz sine-wave tone on an AM carrier wave if the carrier frequency is 118 MHz?

a) 10 KHz
b) 4 KHz
c) 8 KHz
d) None of these

13. An AM transmitter is operating on a carrier frequency (Fc) of 10.000 MHz, with 5000 volts of carrier (Vc). The transmitter is operating at 70% modulation. What is the voltage in the upper side band?

a) 3500 V
b) 2750 V
c) 2000 V
d) 1750 V

14. A certain AM transmitter produces 10W of power into a 50 Ohm load with no modulation. What total power will be produced at 100% modulation?

a) 15 W
b) 20 W
c) 30 W
d) None of the above

15. What class of amplifier would be serve as a modulator?

a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) None of the above

16. Where does the modulation take place at in a low-level transmitter?

a) At the oscillator
b) At the final power amplifier
c) At the buffer amplifier
d) Before the final power amplifier

17. Where does the modulation take place at in a high-level transmitter?

a) At the oscillator
b) At the final power amplifier
c) At the buffer amplifier
d) Before the final power amplifier

18. The oscillator in a certain transmitter produces 1 mW of output. The signal is subsequently amplified in the following stages:

Buffer: +10 dB
Modulator: +6 dB
Driver: +10 dB
Final: +13 dB

What is the final output power of this transmitter in Watts?

a) 8 Watts
b) 4 Watts
c) 400 mW
d) None of these

19. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier?

a) To provide a large voltage gain
b) To isolate the oscillator from the next stage
c) To reduce distortion of the carrier sine wave
d) None of the above

20. What is the purpose of the zener diode in a power supply circuit for an oscillator?

a) To regulate the DC supply of the oscillator, preventing frequency drift
b) To lower the DC supply voltage for the oscillator
c) To eliminate RF currents on the power supply rail
d) None of the above

21. What is the operating frequency of the oscillator pictured above?

a) 599.412 KHz
b) 847.697 KHz
c) 455.000 KHz
d) None of the above

22. In order for an oscillator to start, the loop gain must be:

a) Greater than 1
b) Greater than or equal to 1
c) Less than 1
d) None of the above

23. What type of oscillator is pictured above?

a) Colpitts
b) Hartley
c) Armstrong
d) Pierce
e) None of the above

24. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the parallel-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

25. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the series-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

26. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. At parallel-resonance, what is the approximate terminal impedance of the unit?

a) 30 + j125 Ohms
b) 30 - j150 Ohms
c) 150 Ohms (Equal to Rs)
d) Infinity (Open Circuit)

27. Another name for the parallel-resonant frequency of a crystal is the:

a) Pole
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

28. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. At series-resonance, what is the approximate terminal impedance of the unit?

a) 30 + j125 Ohms
b) 30 - j150 Ohms
c) 150 Ohms (Equal to Rs)
d) Infinity (Open Circuit)

29. A mixer is producing the following frequency outputs: 710 KHz, 455 KHz, 1165 KHz, 1875 KHz. What are the two most likely frequencies being applied?

a) 710 KHz, 1165 KHz
b) 1875 KHz, 1165 KHz
c) 1000 KHz, 875 KHz
d) 262.5 KHz, 300 KHz
e) None of these

30. The two signal components that are produced in a diode-type AM detector circuit are:

a) The upper and lower sidebands
b) A DC level and the AC information signal
c) The carrier frequency and sidebands
d) None of these

31. What is meant by the term "high-side injection?"

a) The local oscillator operates with a large AC output signal
b) The IF amplifier uses negative-bias to produce AGC
c) The local oscillator operates above the frequency of the RF carrier
d) None of the above

32. What section of a superheterodyne receiver determines the receiver's bandwidth and selectivity?

a) Preselector
b) IF Amplifier
c) Detector
d) Audio Amplifier
e) None of the above

33. A mixer has two frequencies being applied, 700 KHz and 1000 KHz. Which of these gives the ideal output frequencies?

a) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz
b) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz
c) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz, 300 KHz
d) None of these

34. Why can't TRF receivers be constructed for high-frequency (above 1-2 MHz) use?

a) Insufficent "Q" is available from discrete LC components at these frequencies
b) Transistors and ICs have insufficient gain at these frequencies
c) Detector circuits produce excessive distortion at these frequencies
d) None of the above

35. Given that N=1593, R=1024, and F1 = 10.240 MHz, what will the output frequency Fout of the PLL synthesizer above be?

a) 10.240 MHz
b) 4.9152 MHz
c) 15.930 MHz
d) None of the above

36. How can a technician determine that a PLL is in lock?

a) Check that Vcontrol = Vcc/2
b) Check that Fvco = Fref
c) Check that Fvco = Fref / 2
d) None of the above

37. Given that N=2442, R=10240, and F1 = 10.240 MHz, what will the output frequency Fout of the PLL synthesizer above be?

a) 1.024 MHz
b) 20.480 MHz
c) 8.192 MHz
d) 2.442 MHz

38. What frequency should be at TP "B" above if N=1, R=10, F1=1 MHz? Note: F1 is the crystal reference oscillator frequency.

a) 1 MHz
b) 100 KHz
c) 10 KHz
d) None of the above

39. A certain FM transmitter is operating on 29.600 MHz; the unmodulated carrier power is 50 Watts. The maximum permitted deviation is 5 KHz. What power will be delivered to the antenna at 50% modulation?

a) 25 Watts
b) 75 Watts
c) 50 Watts
d) 100 Watts

40. How many significant PAIRS of sidebands will be produced by an FM transmitter that is producing 1 KHz of deviation with a 1 KHz deviation rate (information frequency)?

a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

41. A NARROWBAND FM (NBFM) signal has how many pairs of significant sidebands?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) None of these

42. What is the purpose of guard bands?

a) To reduce distortion on received signals
b) To limit the transmitting distance to line of sight
c) To prevent adjacent channel interference
d) None of the above

43. Why is it possible to amplify FM signals in a class C amplifier?

a) The maximum power is no more than twice the unmodulated power
b) The power in an FM signal is constant
c) The bandwidth of FM signals quite small, less than 10 KHz
d) None of the above

44. If the frequency at TP "A" in the figure above is 95.300 MHz, what is the MOST LIKELY frequency at TP "D"?

a) 95.300 MHz
b) 93.300 MHz
c) 91.900 MHz
d) None of the above

45. A 5 MHz crystal oscillator is being driven so that it has 1000 Hz of deviation. This signal is fed into an X3 frequency multiplier. What is the resultant output frequency and deviation?

a) Fout=3 MHz, Deviation=2 KHz
b) Fout=5 MHz, Deviation=3 KHz
c) Fout=15 MHz, Deviation=1 KHz
d) None of the above

46. A 7 MHz crystal oscillator is being driven so that it has 1100 Hz of deviation. This signal is fed into an X5 frequency multiplier. What is the resultant output frequency and deviation?

a) Fout=35 MHz, Deviation=5.5 KHz
b) Fout=21 MHz, Deviation=3.3 KHz
c) Fout=15 MHz, Deviation=1 KHz
d) None of the above

47. Why is FM reception generally free from interference in the form of static?

a) FM Receivers are not sensitive to amplitude variations
b) FM receivers have a very high IF frequency
c) FM receivers use class C amplifiers to reject noise
d) None of the above

48. Which of these FM detectors rely on a closed loop that "follows" the instantaneous frequency changes of the incoming carrier signal?

a) Quadrature
b) Foster-Seeley
c) Ratio
d) PLL
e) None of these

49. What stage in an FM receiver rejects amplitude disturbances?

a) Detector
b) Limiter
c) Mixer
d) Preselector

50. What is the purpose of a LIMITER in an FM receiver?

a) Rejects the image frequency
b) Converts the carrier down to the IF frequency
c) Removes amplitude variations
d) None of the above

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