ET263 Practice Test II

Instructions: There are 25 questions on this test. It is written in a style very similar to the REAL exam #2. Choose the best answer from among those given. Click the GRADE button on the bottom of the form when you want the exam graded.

Note: You can practice this test as many times as you desire; the system will cook you up a fresh batch of questions each time you access this page.

Your Name: @ 3.12.120.25

1. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier?

a) To provide a large voltage gain
b) To isolate the oscillator from the next stage
c) To reduce distortion of the carrier sine wave
d) None of the above

2. Where does the modulation take place at in a high-level transmitter?

a) At the oscillator
b) At the final power amplifier
c) At the buffer amplifier
d) Before the final power amplifier

3. To isolate a transmitter's carrier oscillator from undesired load changes, what stage is often used?

a) A buffer amplifier
b) A class C amplifier
c) A power amplifier
d) None of the above

4. The oscillator in a certain transmitter produces 1 mW of output. The signal is subsequently amplified in the following stages:

Buffer: +10 dB
Modulator: +6 dB
Driver: +10 dB
Final: +13 dB

What is the final output power of this transmitter in Watts?

a) 8 Watts
b) 4 Watts
c) 400 mW
d) None of these

5. Which of these is an important property for a modulator stage to have?

a) High voltage gain
b) High power gain
c) Low input-impedance
d) Non-linear transfer characteristic

6. The oscillator in a certain transmitter produces +6 dBm of output. The signal is subsequently amplified in the following stages:

Buffer: +10 dB
Modulator: +6 dB
Driver: +10 dB
Final: +14 dB
Antenna Coupler: -1 dB
What is the final output power of this transmitter in Watts?

a) 8 Watts
b) 32 Watts
c) 400 mW
d) None of these

7. A certain high-level transmitter produces 10 Watts of carrier power. How much power must the audio amplifier produce to 100% modulate this transmitter?

a) 2 Watts
b) 4 Watts
c) 8 Watts
d) 5 Watts
e) None of the above

8. What is meant by the term "dead-keyed?"

a) The unmodulated condition; 0% modulation
b) 50% modulated
c) 100% modulated; maximum output power
d) None of the above

9. What type of oscillator is pictured above?

a) Colpitts
b) Hartley
c) Armstrong
d) Pierce
e) None of the above

10. Which of these devices would provide the most stable oscillation frequency?

a) An RC time-constant
b) An LC resonant circuit
c) A quartz crystal
d) A ceramic resonator

11. In order for an oscillator to start, the loop gain must be:

a) Greater than 1
b) Greater than or equal to 1
c) Less than 1
d) None of the above

12. A certain oscillator has an amplifier with a phase shift of 45 degrees. According to the Barkhausen criteria for oscillation, what phase shift in the FEEDBACK network would be necessary to cause oscillation?

a) 90 Degrees
b) -45 Degrees
c) 315 Degrees
d) (b) or (c)
e) None of the above

13. Another name for the series-resonant frequency of a crystal is the:

a) Pole
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Minimum

14. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the series-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

15. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. What is the parallel-resonant frequency of the unit?

a) 5.032921 MHz
b) 4.986123 MHz
c) 5.033424 MHz
d) None of the above

16. A certain crystal has the following characteristics: Ls=1 H, Cs=.001 pF, Rs = 150 Ohms, Cm = 5 pF. At series-resonance, what is the approximate terminal impedance of the unit?

a) 30 + j125 Ohms
b) 30 - j150 Ohms
c) 150 Ohms (Equal to Rs)
d) Infinity (Open Circuit)

17. The ability of the preselector and local oscillator stages to keep a constant difference of F(if) in a superhet receiver is referred to as:

a) AGC
b) Detection
c) Alignment
d) Tracking

18. What is meant by the term "low-side injection?"

a) The local oscillator operates with a large AC output signal
b) The IF amplifier uses negative-bias to produce AGC
c) The local oscillator operates above the frequency of the RF carrier
d) None of the above

19. A superhet receiver is using high-side injection. The incoming RF signal has a carrier frequency of 560 KHz; the IF frequency is 455 KHz. What is the image frequency?

a) 1470 KHz
b) 1015 KHz
c) 1120 KHz
d) 1165 KHz
e) None of these

20. A certain superhet receiver has a preselector bandwidth that averages 100 KHz, and an IF bandwidth of 10 KHz. What will the receiver's total bandwidth be?

a) 10 KHz
b) 110 KHz
c) 210 KHz
d) 150 KHz
e) None of these

21. Which of the following specifies the most sensitive receiver? All the units have the same bandwidth. Hint: Convert all into absolute power units.

a) 1 uV into 75 Ohms for better than 10 dB S/N ratio
b) 0.5 uV into 50 Ohms for better than 10 dB S/N ratio
c) -120 dBm for better than 10 dB S/N ratio
d) -110 dBm for better than 10 dB S/N ratio

22. The DC component from the AM detector is used for what purpose?

a) To reduce distortion in the audio amplifier
b) To prevent frequency drift in the local oscillator
c) To control the gain of the RF and IF stages (AGC)
d) None of the above

23. A mixer has two frequencies being applied, 700 KHz and 1000 KHz. Which of these gives the ideal output frequencies?

a) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz
b) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz
c) 700 KHz, 1000 KHz, 1700 KHz, 300 KHz
d) None of these

24. What is the advantage of having a constant-frequency amplifier (the IF amplifier) in a superheterodyne receiver?

a) The gain can be held constant
b) The noise is minimized
c) The bandwidth will be constant
d) None of these

25. What is the first step that must take place in receiving a radio signal?

a) Select (Tune desired carrier frequency)
b) Demodulate (Detect)
c) Amplify RF Signal
d) Acquire an RF signal

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